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Law Questions and Answers for Competitive Exams | Law Quiz Set 38

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Free Download as PDF Law Quiz Questions and Answers for Competitive Exams or solved MCQs with answers. These quiz objective questions are helpful for competitive exams SSC, UPSC, IAS, IPS, Judicial Services, psc exams of Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Orissa, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Telangana etc.
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(1) “Consideration means a reasonable, equivalent or other valuable benefit passed on by the transferor to the transferee. Similarly, when the word ‘consideration’ was qualified by the word ‘adequate’ it makes the consideration stronger so as to make it sufficient and valuable having regard to the facts, circumstances and necessities of the case. ”Above Principle was laid down in
(1) Sonia Bhatia Vs State of U.P
(2) LIC of India Vs Pushpa P. Mansukhani
(3) Dipraich Sugar Mills Ltd. Vs Mazdur Union
(4) A.B.C. Laminart Pvt. Ltd. Vs A.P. Agencies, Salem
Answer: Sonia Bhatia Vs State of U.P
(2) Which of the following statements is right ?
(1) An agreement not to do an impossible act in itself is void
(2) An agreement to do a possible act is void
(3) An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void
(4) A contract to do an act, which after the contract is made, becomes impossible, or, by reason of some event which the promisor could not prevent to be unlawful, becomes valid, when the act becomes impossible or unlawful
Answer: An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void

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(3) Which of the following aspects are the parts of undue influence ? Answer using codes given below :
  1. Inability to dominate will of other
  2. A party unduly influencing and another party being unduly influenced are on equal footing
  3. A relationship involving trust and confidence
  4. In a relationship, one party is a person in mental distress

Codes :

(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only
Answer: (c) and (d) only
(4) Which of the following statements are wrong ? Answer using the codes given blow :
  1. Fraud renders a contract void
  2. Misrepresentation renders a contract voidable
  3. Misrepresentation is more or less an intentional wrong, whereas fraud may be quite innocent
  4. Damages for loss caused by innocent misrepresentation are assessed on the same principles as in the case of a deliberate fraud

Codes :

(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer : (a) and (c) only
(5) Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the law of torts in India ?
(1) It is based on morality that no one has a right to injure or harm other intentionally or even innocently
(2) It is a civil wrong for which remedy is a common law action for liquidated damages
(3) It is based on law which in the constitutional context means judicially developed equity, covers everything which is covered by a statute
(4) It is an act and not omission suffered by a determinate person
Answer: It is based on morality that no one has a right to injure or harm other intentionally or even innocently
(6) The police officers failed to observe the provisions of U.P. Police Regulations in taking care of the gold seized. The injury had been committed by the employees of the state during the course of its employment, but the employment was in special category of sovereign power, so the claim was not sustainable. It was held by the Supreme Court in
(1) Mohammad Murad Vs Govt. of U.P
(2) Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain Vs State of U.P
(3) State of U.P. Vs Hindustan Lever Ltd
(4) State of U.P. Vs Tulsiram
Answer: Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain Vs State of U.P
(7) In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India applied the principle of absolute liability ? Give answer by using codes below :
  1. M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India
  2. Charan Lal Sahu Vs Union of India
  3. Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action Vs Union of India
  4. M.C. Mehta Vs State of MP

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only
Answer: (a), (b) and (c) only
(8) What remoteness of damage mean in relation to liability of defendant ?
(1) The defendant is not liable for all direct consequences of the tortuous acts if he could foresee them
(2) Forseeability is no test of remoteness of damages
(3) Liable in Law only for consequences which are not remote
(4) Directness of the consequences is the only test for the remoteness of the damages
Answer: Liable in Law only for consequences which are not remote
(9) Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation Vs K. Hemlatha and Municipal Corporation Greater Bombay Vs Laxman Iyer are important cases decided by the Supreme Court on the rule of
(1) Act of God
(2) Contributory Negligence
(3) Nuisance
(4) Trespass
Answer: Contributory Negligence
(10) Read the following Principle :

“There is always an imposed duty on a person to act on moral necessity to preserve one’s life, yet there may be justifiable occasions of causing harm on innocent persons.” In the light of the above, in which of the following circumstances the accused can claim doctrine of self-preservation under the provisions of Sec. 81 of IPC ?

(1) When necessity is pleaded as a means of defence under sections 96 to 106
(2) Self-preservation is not an absolute necessity, so killing the weaker is justifiable by the stronger
(3) Arresting a drunken person moving in great danger at a public place
(4) When there is no choice of evil affecting the accused
Answer: Arresting a drunken person moving in great danger at a public place
(11) In the absence of any cogent definition of unsoundness of mind, the world wide acceptance of its equivalent to insanity was propounded by
(1) Stephan
(2) Harris
(3) Kenny
(4) Davis
Answer: Stephan
(12) The underlying principle covering the law on ‘consent’ is based on absolute and unconditional prohibition on the gravity of the offence relating to :
(1) Simple hurt
(2) Death
(3) Theft from an unlocked house
(4) Submission for detaining indecent liberties
Answer: Death
(13) The right of private defence is not allowed in which of the facts leading to :
(1) The death was consequence of the assault
(2) More harm was done than necessary
(3) When the fact is clearly based on conjectures
(4) When the fact reveals about imminent danger to self or property
Answer: More harm was done than necessary
(14) When a person tries to escape from lawful custody while being taken to a Magistrate to furnish security for good behaviour could be punished under the provision of
(1) Section 224 of IPC
(2) Section 225 of IPC
(3) Section 225A of IPC
(4) Section 225B of IPC
Answer: Section 225B of IPC
(15) The distinction between intentional killing in hot blood and intentional killing when the blood was cool may be inferred through
(1) Provocation
(2) Self-control
(3) Passion
(4) Resentment
Answer: Provocation

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