UGC NET(National Eligibility Test) Environmental Science - Previous Years Solved Papers | Paper III November 2017

1. The sum of the internal energy and product of pressure and volume is known as :

• (1) Enthalpy
• (2) Gibbs free energy
• (3) Entropy
• (4) Helmholtz free energy

Answer: (1)

2. If at latitude φ = 308, pressure gradient is 15 mb per 1000 km, the geostrophic wind velocity will be :

• (1) ~ 20.54 m/s
• (2) ~ 15.92 m/s
• (3) ~ 7.96 m/s
• (4) ~ 10.27 m/s

Answer: (2)

3. In a cloud free weather, there is an atmospheric window, which is transparent to terrestrial radiation in the wavelength band :

• (1) 1618 nm - 23400 nm
• (2) 2168 nm - 4610 nm
• (3) 12500 nm - 17000 nm
• (4) 7000 nm - 13500 nm

Answer: (4)

4. If , where are environmental and dry adiabatic lapse rates respectively, which of the following types of plume emitted from a stack of a thermal power plant is observed ?

• (1) Fanning
• (2) Fumigating
• (3) Looping
• (4) Coning

Answer: (1)

5. Out of the following two statements, identify the correct one(s) :

(a) An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is alkaline.

(b) An aqueous solution of carbon dioxide is acidic.

• (1) (a) is correct, (b) is incorrect
• (2) (a) is incorrect, (b) is correct
• (3) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
• (4) Both (a) and (b) are correct

Answer: (4)

6. The photodissociation of NO2 yields which oxygen species ?

• (1) O(3P)
• (2) O(1D)
• (3) O+
• (4) O−

Answer: (1)

7. The vapour pressure of bromobenzene above its ideal dilute aqueous solution of molality 0.1 mol kg−1 is 24.0 kPa. Calculate the Henry’s law constant of bromobenzene :

• (1) 240 kPa kg mol−1
• (2) 220 kPa kg mol−1
• (3) 460 kPa kg mol−1
• (4) 400 kPa kg mol−1

Answer: (1)

14. Which of the following statements is true for an ideal dilute solution ?

• (1) Solute and solvent both obey Raoult’s law
• (2) Solute obeys Raoult’s law and solvent obeys Henry’s law
• (3) Solute obeys Henry’s law and solvent obeys Raoult’s law
• (4) Solute and solvent both obey Henry’s law

Answer: (3)

15. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The living components of ecosystems are not immortal.

Reason (R) : Depending on the biological longevity, all living systems become abiotic constituents.

Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

16. The movement of energy from primary producers to consumers is effected by :

• (1) The process of eating
• (2) The rate of rainfall
• (3) The rate of evaporation
• (4) The rate of transpiration

Answer: (1)

17. The result of removal of primary producers and subsequent reduction in population size leading to change in community attributes is referred to as :

• (1) Top - down cascade
• (2) Bottom - up cascade
• (3) Population decline
• (4) Community collapse

Answer: (2)

18. The amount of accumulated dead organic matter in different forest types :

• (1) Decreases from pole to equator.
• (2) Increases from tropic of cancer to tropic of Capricorn.
• (3) Increases from pole to equator.
• (4) Stabilizes at any point between two poles.

Answer: (1)

19. Which one of the following termite gut microbe contributes to degradation of cellulose ?

• (1) Trichonympha sp.
• (2) Enterococcus sp.
• (3) Enterobacter sp.
• (4) Citrobacter sp.

Answer: (1)

20. Match the List - I and List - II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :

• (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
• (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
• (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (4)

21. The size of the Femtoplankton is in the range :

• (1) 0.2 - 2.0 µm
• (2) < 0.2 µm
• (3) > 5.0 µm
• (4) 0.5 - 1.0 µm

Answer: (2)

22. As of July 2017, the total number of National Parks existing in India is :

• (1) 127
• (2) 103
• (3) 97
• (4) 100

Answer: (2)

23. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Some infectious particles loose their infectious - ability in territories closer to equator, with high average of daily sunshine hours.

Reason (R) : UV incidence can determine the survival of infectious particles.

Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

24. An organism that represents both primary producer and primary consumer of an aquatic ecosystem is :

• (1) Phytoplankton
• (2) Bacterioplankton
• (3) Benthic algae
• (4) Zooplankton

Answer: (2)

25. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The 18O/16O ratio in a natural system can be used as a thermometer.

Reason (R) : The fractions of 18O/16O depend on temperature. Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

26. Most suitable spectral region for studying Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect is :

• (1) 3 - 5 µm
• (2) 8 - 10 µm
• (3) 10 - 12 µm
• (4) 1 - 3 µm

Answer: (3)

27. Which factor(s) may affect species richness on island ?

(a) Area of the island

(b) Distance from the mainland

(c) Shape of the island

Choose the correct code :

• (1) (a) and (b) only
• (2) (b) and (c) only
• (3) (a) and (c) only
• (4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

28. Delineation of water - nonwater boundary in remote sensing is best done using :

• (1) 0.5 - 0.6 µm
• (2) 0.6 - 0.7 µm
• (3) 0.7 - 0.9 µm
• (4) 1 - 3 µm

Answer: (3)

29. Environmentalists oppose the mining of antarctic mineral resources because :

• (1) The demand for minerals is expected to decline as the world’s nations become more industrialized.
• (2) Environment of Antarctica is extremely vulnerable and fragile to the disturbance that would occur with the development.
• (3) Territorial claims to Antarctica are unresolved.
• (4) Currenty known reserves of minerals and metals are considered inexhaustible.

Answer: (2)

30. Which of the following statements is not true for the solubility of CO2 in seawater ?

• (1) It increases with increase in partial pressure of CO2.
• (2) It increases with increase in pH.
• (3) It increases with increase in temperature.
• (4) It decrease with increase in salinity.

Answer: (3)

31. What was the theme for the International Ozone Day (year 2017 ) ?

• (1) ‘Caring for all life under the Sun’
• (2) ‘Ozone : All there is between you and UV’
• (3) ‘Ozone and Climate : Restored by a World United’
• (4) ‘30 years of healing Ozone Together’

Answer: (1)

32. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : OTEC power plants have low efficiences.

Reason (R) : Efficiency is governed by 2ND law of thermodynamics. Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

33. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The efficiency of a silicon solar cell decreases with increase in temperature.

Reason (R) : The intrinsic resistance of the solar cell increases with rise in temperature. Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

34. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The rotor blades of wind - turbine execute rotational motion when moving air impinges on them.

Reason (R) : The momentum of the moving air is transferred to the moving blades.

Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

41. In the purification of drinking water, the purpose of aeration is not to :

• (1) Remove dissolved gases such as H2S
• (2) Remove volatile organic compounds
• (3) Oxidize soluble Fe2+ to Fe3+
• (4) Precipitate colloidal particles

Answer: (4)

42. Which of the following is an organocarbamate insecticide ?

• (1) Parathion
• (2) Chloropyritos
• (3) Aldicarb
• (4) Malathion

Answer: (2)

43. A bag containing a mixed feitilizer is labelled 5 - 10 - 5. It indicates :

• (1) 5% P ; 10% N ; 5% K
• (2) 5% N ; 10% P2O5 ; 5% K2O
• (3) 5% N2O ; 10% PH3 ; 5% K2O
• (4) 5% N ; 10% PH3 ; 5% K2O

Answer: (2)

44. The bioremediation technique of a contaminated soil does not require the fulfilment of which of the following conditions ?

• (1) Waste must be present in a physical form that is susceptible to microbes.
• (2) Waste must be susceptible to biodegradation.
• (3) Environmental conditions such as pH, temperature and oxygen level must be appropriate.
• (4) Microbes of any type must be available.

Answer: (4)

45. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Organophosphate insecticides have lower values of partition coefficient, KOW, than organochlorine pesticides.

Reason (R) : Organophosphate insecticide molecules have lower ability to form hydrogen bonds with water than organochlorine pesticides.

Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

46. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : NOX and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) are primary precursors in photochemical smog formation.

Reason (R) : NOX and VOCs form oxidants by thermal reactions.

Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true

Answer: (3)

47. The dominant species, which removes hydroxyl radical in troposphere, is :

• (1) CH4
• (2) CO
• (3) NO
• (4) NO2

Answer: (2)

48. Match the List - I and List -II. Identify the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

• (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
• (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
• (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (4)

49. The baseline studies in EIA pertain to :

• (1) Collection of demographic data only
• (2) Prediction of significant residual environmental impact
• (3) Existing environmental setting of the proposed development area
• (4) Selection of the best project option available

Answer: (3)

50. Which one of the following steps is not included in the scoping process ?

• (1) Baseline descriptions and potential additional data collection needs
• (2) Description of environmental impacts and creation of contingency plan
• (3) Defining a set of criteria to assess the project
• (4) Setting of experts team that will conduct EIA

Answer: (2)

51. A company conducted an environmental risk assessment to evaluate the possible impacts of releasing various levels of pollutants from a chemical plant. An environmental risk assessment should focus on :

• (1) Beneficial aspects of the products produced by the plant
• (2) The legislative requirements related to the human health effects as a result of exposure to the pollutant
• (3) The quantification of hazards to the local environment from pollutants released
• (4) Detailed outline of the management process to reduce the health effects related to exposure to the pollutants

Answer: (4)

52. In EIA the multi - attribute utility theory is used to describe :

• (1) The identification of the alternatives to be evaluated and structuring of environmental parameters
• (2) Existing environmental quality of study area
• (3) The socio - economic status of the area
• (4) The risk involved in a development project

Answer: (1)

53. Under the Air Act, 1981, which body is empowered to set standard for ambient air quality ?

• (1) MOEFCC
• (2) Ministry of Home Affairs
• (3) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
• (4) State Ministry of Home Affairs

Answer: (4)

54. What is meant by the doctrine of riparian rights ?

• (1) Prevention is better than cure.
• (2) One who pollutes the water, must pay for it.
• (3) Every owner has a right to get unpolluted water without alteration.
• (4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

55. Which environmental legislation in India makes it compulsory to obtain prior approval of the Central Government for diversion of forest lands for non - forest purposes ?

• (1) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
• (2) Indian Forest Act, 1927
• (3) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
• (4) Traditional forest - Dwellers (Forest rights) Act, 2006

Answer: (3)

56. The Lime stabilization and drying of biosolids ensure : (a) Creating unfavourable condition to vector (b) High pH of contents in biosolids (c) Reduction of all toxic elements Choose the correct answer :

• (1) (a), (b) and (c)
• (2) (a) and (c) only
• (3) (a) and (b) only
• (4) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (3)

57. Which one of the following waste may undergo exothermic self - accelerating decomposition ?

• (1) Organic peroxides
• (2) Arsenic bearing sludges
• (3) Organo - Chlorines
• (4) Vinylchlorides

Answer: (1)

58. According to Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules 2011, recycling of the plastic should be done according to:

• (1) IS/ISO 14852 : 1991
• (2) IS/ISO 17088 : 2008
• (3) IS 9833 : 1981
• (4) IS 14534 : 1998

Answer: (4)

59. Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal ?

• (1) Ensuring environmental sustainability
• (2) Eradicating extreme hunger and poverty
• (3) Developing global partnership for development
• (4) Achieving universal energy security

Answer: (4)

60. The definition of ‘air pollutant’ as per section 2(a) of Air Act, 1981 includes :

• (1) Liquid and gaseous substances
• (2) Solid, liquid and gaseous substances including noise
• (3) Gaseous substances
• (4) Solid, liquid and gaseous substances

Answer: (2)

61. In a population of 210 individuals, 72 are smokers and 138 are non - smokers. If a person is selected with an equal chance to each category, what is the probability of that person being a smoker ?

• (1) 0.25
• (2) 0.50
• (3) 0.34
• (4) 0.75

Answer: (4)

62. If the mean value (X) of a normally distributed data is 10 and number of observation (n)=36 with an standard deviation (sd) of 0.3, then 90% confidence interval is :

• (1) 10±0.08
• (2) 10±8.23
• (3) 10±0.16
• (4) 10±4.15

Answer: (1)

63. Consider a tall stack emitting a pollutant at the rate 5.0 gms−1 in the atmosphere where wind is blowing in X-direction with an average velocity of 2.0 ms−1 at the stack height. What will be the maximum ground level concentration if the effective stack height is 30.0 m and the Gaussian plume is assumed with dispersion parameters σY=50. 0 m and σZ=30.0 m ?

• (1) ~ 180 µgm−3
• (2) ~ 320 µgm−3
• (3) ~ 240 µgm−3
• (4) ~ 415 µgm−3

Answer: (2)

64. Which of the following material(s) are used as land fill liner for the control of gas and leachate movement ? (a) Sand (b) Bentonite (c) Fly ash (d) Butyle rubber Choose the correct code :

• (1) (a) and (b) only
• (2) (a) and (c) only
• (3) (c) and (d) only
• (4) (b) and (d) only

Answer: (4)

65. Assume that the population (N) of a species follows the logistic growth represented by following equation - DN = 0.8N − 0.01N2 DT At what value of N, the population exhibits maximum growth ?

• (1) 40
• (2) 80
• (3) 160
• (4) 800

Answer: (1)

66. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : In regression analysis, smaller the p - values, the more significant is the result of the experiment.

Reason (R) : The magnitude of p - value is an indicator of the association between the changes in the predictor’s value and the changes in the response variable.

Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

67. The mean and median of a moderately skewed distribution are 21 and 20 respectively. The mode of the distribution is :

• (1) 24
• (2) 12
• (3) 18
• (4) 26

Answer: (3)

68. The 90TH percentile value for the data : 6, 6, 6.5, 7.0, 7.5, 6.5, 6, 7.5 and 8 is :

• (1) 7.50
• (2) 6.50
• (3) 7.75
• (4) 7.00

Answer: (3)

69. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Sustainable mountain development should be the global priority.

Reason (R) : Mountain people are particularly vulnerable to impacts of climate change and natural disasters.

Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

70. In the total global ecological footprint, which country has the maximum share :

• (1) USA
• (2) China
• (3) India
• (4) Brazil

Answer: (2)

71. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Climate change induced monsoon variability may have serious consequences for Indian agriculture.

Reason (R) : Two third (2/3RD) of area under cultivation in India is rain dependent.

Choose the correct answer :

• (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
• (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
• (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
• (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

72. Namami Gange (Integrated Ganga Conservation Mission / Programme under National Ganga River Basin Authority) programme was launched in which year ?

• (1) 2014
• (2) 2015
• (3) 1989
• (4) 2012

Answer: (1)

73. Which state in India is pioneer in making rain water harvesting as a compulsory measure in towns to avoid ground water depletion?

• (1) Kerala
• (2) Arunachal Pradesh
• (3) Tamilnadu
• (4) Maharashtra

Answer: (3)

74. Environmental education : (a) Increases public awareness (b) Provides knowledge of environmental issues (c) Does not provide disciplinary focus (d) Sensitizes individuals about the necessity of sustainable development Choose the correct answer :

• (1) (a), (c) and (d) only
• (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
• (3) (b), (c) and (d) only
• (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

75. The greenhouse gas, ozone, absorbs and emits long wave radiation near the wavelength :

• (1) 9.6 µm
• (2) 11.2 µm
• (3) 6.9 µm
• (4) 17.3 µm

Answer: (1)