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UGC NET(National Eligibility Test) Public Administration - Previous Years Solved Papers | Paper II November 2017

1. Kautilya’s ideas on taxation do not relate to :
  • (1) taxing power of state is limited.
  • (2) taxation should not be felt to be heavy or exclusive.
  • (3) tax increase should be graduated.
  • (4) tax increase should be doubled in every five years.

Answer: Option (4)

2. Who among the following propounded the ‘Theory of Justice’ as major ethical framework for Public Administration ?
  • (1) John Stuart
  • (2) John Rawls
  • (3) Robert Dahl
  • (4) Herbert A. Simon

Answer: Option (2)

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3. Assertion (A) : We can neither accept politics-administration dichotomy nor get along without it.

Reason (R) : It is getting harder to run a constitution than to frame the constitution.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: Option (2)

4. According to M.P. Follet, the success of ‘Integration’ depends on :

(a) High Intelligence

(b) Keen Perception

(c) Discrimination

(d) Inventiveness

  • (1) (a), (b), (c)
  • (2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
  • (3) (b), (c), (d), (e)
  • (4) (a), (b), (c), (e)

Answer: Option (2)

5. “Accountability refers to the formal and specific location of responsibility, whereas responsibility is personal, moral and not necessarily related to formal power.” Whose statement it is ?
  • (1) Webster’s Dictionary
  • (2) John M. Pfiffner
  • (3) Robert Merton
  • (4) William Scott

Answer: Option (2)

6. Assertion (A) : The concept of New Public Management emerged in opposition to the traditional military-bureaucratic ideas of good administration.

Reason (R) : New Public Management, like many previous administrative philosophies, was presented as a framework of general applicability.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: Option (2)

7. Select the correct proactive steps as suggested by Van Slyke, O’Leavy and Kim to make public administration ‘a stronger and more robust field’.

(a) Supportive collaborative research.

(b) Demand to maintain methodological and epistemological pluralism.

(c) Understanding western administration.

(d) Promoting boundary spanning.

Code :
  • (1) (a) and (b)
  • (2) (a), (b), (d)
  • (3) (a), (c) and (d)
  • (4) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: Option (2)

8. The member of a bureaucracy needs statemanship which cannot be tested through examination. Who said it ?
  • (1) Herald Laski
  • (2) Hegal
  • (3) Karl Marx
  • (4) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: Option (3)

9. “It is impossible for humanity to advance its knowledge of organisation unless the factor on structure is isolated from other considerations, however artificial such isolation may appear”. Who made this statement ?
  • (1) Lyndall Urwick
  • (2) Luther Gullick
  • (3) M.P. Follet
  • (4) Henri Fayol

Answer: Option (2)

10. According to Herzberg, “Which one of the following is not a determinant of job satisfaction” ?
  • (1) Responsibility
  • (2) Supervision
  • (3) Working conditions
  • (4) Interpersonal relations

Answer: Option (1)

11. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
  • (1) A Theory of Human Motivation - Abraham Maslow
  • (2) Management and Morale - Fritz Roethlisberger
  • (3) Personality and social encounter - J.S. Adams
  • (4) Existence, Relatedness and - C.P. Alderfer Growth : Human Needs in organizational setting

Answer: Option (3)

12. In which year, Elton Mayo started research to find out the reasons for unjustified absenteeism ?
  • (1) 1924
  • (2) 1928
  • (3) 1931
  • (4) 1943

Answer: Option (4)

13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Charismatic leadership ?
  • (1) They have a vision.
  • (2) They are willing to take personal risks to achieve vision.
  • (3) They are sensitive to followers needs.
  • (4) They exhibit ordinary behaviour.

Answer: Option (4)

14. Which of the following is not related to Sensitivity Training ?
  • (1) It promotes interpersonal competence.
  • (2) It enhances dependence and control.
  • (3) It helps in understanding effective group functioning.
  • (4) It develops awareness and acceptance of self.

Answer: Option (2)

15. Match List - I with List - II. Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :
  • (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
  • (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
  • (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
  • (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: Option (3)

16. Which of following are discerned major motivational concerns in the literature of Comparative Public Administration by Nimrod Raphaeli ?

(a) Theory construction

(b) Development administration

(c) Administrative capacity building

(d) Administration of planned change

Code :
  • (1) (a) and (b)
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (3) (b), (c) and (d)
  • (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: Option (1)

17. Arrange the following publications of Riggs in a descending order, and select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a) Article, “Agraria and Industria : Toward a Typology of Comparative Administration

(b) Prismatic Society Revisited

(c) Ecology of Public Administration

(d) Administration in Developing Countries

Code :
  • (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (2) (d), (c), (b) and (a)
  • (3) (c), (a), (b) and (d)
  • (4) (b), (c), (d) and (a)

Answer: Option (4)

18. Assertion (A) : The formulation of the prismatic model was primarily based on the extent to which a social administrative system undergoes functional differentiation.

Reason (R) : Present day Riggs is in fact the most blunt and harshest critic of former Riggs.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: Option (2)

19. Local Government has become the subject of state rather than of U.S. Federal Government by which one of the following Amendments to the constitution ?
  • (1) 9TH
  • (2) 10TH
  • (3) 11TH
  • (4) 12TH

Answer: Option (2)

20. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Karl Marx views on bureaucracy ?
  • (1) It is an unnecessary evil.
  • (2) It has a class character.
  • (3) It is the political expression of the division of labour.
  • (4) It can be abolished only when the general interest becomes real.

Answer: Option (1)

21. Which of the following pair is incorrect ? (Theory) (Thinker)
  • (1) Development Administration – Edward Weidner
  • (2) Human Relations Theory – Elton Mayo
  • (3) Comparative Public Administration – F.W. Riggs
  • (4) Administrative Management Theory – Chester Barnard

Answer: Option (4)

22. Who among the following viewed that development administration is characterised by its “purposes”, its “loyalties” and its “attitudes” ?
  • (1) Edward Weidner
  • (2) F.W. Riggs
  • (3) George Gant
  • (4) V.A. Pai Panandikar

Answer: Option (3)

23. Who among the following classified administrative structure in less developed countries as Bureaucracy Prominent regimes and Party Prominent Political regimes ?
  • (1) F.W. Riggs
  • (2) Ferrel Heady
  • (3) Comparative Administration Group of USA
  • (4) Robert Jackson

Answer: Option (2)

24. During the Mughal era, the District Collector was known by which of the following name ?
  • (1) Vishay Pati
  • (2) Karori Faujdar
  • (3) Subedar
  • (4) Shikdar

Answer: Option (2)

25. Which one of the following is not an Apex/Independent Office in the organization of the central government ?
  • (1) Cabinet Secretariat
  • (2) Prime Minister’s office
  • (3) President’s Secretariat
  • (4) University Grants Commission

Answer: Option (4)

26. Assertion (A) : Sound promotion policy leads to greater efficiency in public administration.

Reason (R) : Promotion makes employees more sensitive to people’s aspirations.

Code :
  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: Option (3)

27. In which year the practice for presentation of separate budget of Railway was introduced in India ?
  • (1) 1858
  • (2) 1893
  • (3) 1921
  • (4) 1951

Answer: Option (3)

28. Which of the following reasons make the Union Budget 2017-18 different from earlier ones ?

(a) Advancement of Budget

(b) Demonetisation

(c) Good Economic Growth

(d) Merger of Rail Budget with Union Budget

Select the correct answer from the code given :
  • (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
  • (2) (a), (b), (c)
  • (3) (a), (b), (d)
  • (4) (a), (d)

Answer: Option (3)

29. ‘Finance Commission’ consists of a chairman and :
  • (1) Five members
  • (2) Three members
  • (3) Four members
  • (4) Seven members

Answer: Option (3)

30. Which article of the constitution divides the subject matter of legislation between Union and States ?
  • (1) Article 245
  • (2) Article 246
  • (3) Article 248
  • (4) Article 249

Answer: Option (2)

31. Which one of the following statements pertaining to Union Public Service Commission is not correct ?
  • (1) The commission serves as an advisory body.
  • (2) The commission is given its functions under Article 320 of the Indian constitution.
  • (3) Article 321 provides that additional functions may be entrusted to the commission.
  • (4) Article 311 provides that additional functions may be entrusted to the commission.

Answer: Option (4)

32. Which of the following are the focal areas of National Training Policy as per the recommendations of 2ND ARC in its 10TH Report ? Answer by using code given below.

(a) Responsiveness to challenging democratic needs.

(b) Awareness of technological, economic and social developments.

(c) Accountability to ensure high performance.

(d) Commitment to leadership.

Code :
  • (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
  • (2) (b), (c) and (d)
  • (3) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (4) (a), (c) and (d)

Answer: Option (3)

33. In which of the following year, the new National Training Policy was launched ?
  • (1) 2012
  • (2) 2013
  • (3) 2014
  • (4) 2015

Answer: Option (1)

34. Which of the following committee/commission recommended the introduction of examination system along with consideration of ACRs for the promotion of Group A Central Civil Services ?
  • (1) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
  • (2) Sixth Pay Commission
  • (3) 7TH Pay Commission
  • (4) P.C. Hota Committee

Answer: Option (1)

35. Which one of the following districts is the largest by territorial area in India as per census of 2011 ?
  • (1) Leh
  • (2) Jaisalmer
  • (3) Kachchh
  • (4) Bikaner

Answer: Option (3)

36. Which of the following component would not form the part of Union Budget of India ?
  • (1) Tax Revenue
  • (2) Non-Tax Revenue
  • (3) Sales Budget
  • (4) Capital Receipts

Answer: Option (3)

37. The Department related Parliamentary Standing Committees were introduced for the first time in India in the year ?
  • (1) 1991
  • (2) 1993
  • (3) 2000
  • (4) 2003

Answer: Option (2)

38. “Criticism is the very life blood of science”. Identify the characteristic of scientific method referred by this ‘phrase’ of Karl Pearson.
  • (1) Ethical neutrality
  • (2) Generality
  • (3) Prediction based on probability
  • (4) Public methodology affording testing of conclusions

Answer: Option (4)

39. Which of following is not a characteristic of usable hypothesis ?
  • (1) It should be empirically testable.
  • (2) It must be specific.
  • (3) It should be general and grandiose in scope.
  • (4) It should be related to a body of a theory.

Answer: Option (3)

40. Which one of following is not a principle of experimental designs enumerated by Fisher ?
  • (1) Principle of Replication
  • (2) Principle of Matching
  • (3) Principle of Randomization
  • (4) Principle of local control

Answer: Option (2)

41. Sampling errors are absent in :
  • (1) Census survey
  • (2) Small sample
  • (3) Large sample
  • (4) Convenience sample

Answer: Option (1)

42. Which one of the following schemes for Social Justice and Empowerment is not governed by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment ?
  • (1) Self-employment scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS)
  • (2) Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY)
  • (3) Pradhan Mantri Grameen Awaas Yojana
  • (4) Protection of Civil Rights and Prevention of Atrocities.

Answer: Option (3)

43. Which of the following is/are not true of Parliamentary Committee on the welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ?

(a) The committee has 30 members – 20 elected from Lok Sabha and 10 elected from Rajya Sabha.

(b) The term of the committee is one year.

(c) A minister is eligible for election to the committee.

(d) The election pattern to the committee comprises of 15 members each from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Code :
  • (1) (a) only
  • (2) (a) and (b)
  • (3) (c) and (d)
  • (4) (b) and (c)

Answer: Option (3)

44. Maintenance and welfare of parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 is not applicable to which one of the following States of Indian Union ?
  • (1) Nagaland
  • (2) Mizoram
  • (3) Jammu and Kashmir
  • (4) Sikkim

Answer: Option (3)

45. Which one of the following is not a role of public sector in Indian Economy ?
  • (1) Generation of Income
  • (2) Capital Formation
  • (3) Infrastructure Development
  • (4) Concentration of Income and Wealth

Answer: Option (4)

46. As an economic measure what is not true of merger of PSU Banks in India ?
  • (1) In India there are 21 PSU Banks.
  • (2) Union cabinet recently decided to set up a Ministerial panel to consider the mergers.
  • (3) The idea of bank mergers was recommended by M. Narasimham in 1991.
  • (4) In 2014, P.J. Nayak Panel suggested to drop the proposal of bank mergers.

Answer: Option (4)

47. Rural India’s version of ‘Start up India’ is known as :
  • (1) Deen Dayal Upadhyay Swaniyojan Yojana
  • (2) D.D. Upadhyay Gram Jyoti Yojana
  • (3) D.D. Upadhyay Skill Development Yojana
  • (4) D.D. Upadhyay Gram Sadak Yojana

Answer: Option (1)

48. Government of India has launched GST training programme to skill youth under which one of the following schemes ?
  • (1) Digital India Programme
  • (2) INSPIRE Programme
  • (3) National Social Assistance Scheme
  • (4) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana

Answer: Option (4)

49. Accountability and Transparency should be ensured in local bodies by establishing audit committees at the district level. This has been suggested by :
  • (1) L.M. Singhvi Committee
  • (2) Ministry of Urban Development
  • (3) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
  • (4) 14TH Finance Commission of India

Answer: Option (3)

50. The social audit provisions have mostly been ineffective because of which of the following reasons ?

(a) There are no legal provisions for punitive action.

(b) States have not enacted legislation to facilitate social audit.

(c) Feeble community participation in this process.

(d) Needed Public documents are not made available by the incurring agencies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
  • (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
  • (2) (a), (b), (c)
  • (3) (a), (c), (d)
  • (4) (a), (b), (d)

Answer: Option (1)

UGC NET Public Administration November 2017 Paper III

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