Q. If π = 2π₯π’ + 3π¦π£ + 4π§π€Β Β and π’ = π₯2 + π¦2 + π§2, then div(π’π) at (1, 1, 1) is
Ans: 45
Solution:
![Determine the correctness (or otherwise) of the following Assertion [A] and the Reason [R]](https://www.gkseries.com/blog/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/Determine-the-correctness-or-otherwise-of-the-following-Assertion-A-and-the-Reason-R.jpg)
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