![If π = 2π₯π’ + 3π¦π£ + 4π§π€Β Β and π’ = π₯2 + π¦2 + π§2, then div(π’π) at (1, 1, 1) is](https://www.gkseries.com/blog/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/If-π-2π₯π’-3π¦π£-4π§π€-and-π’-π₯2-π¦2-π§2-then-divπ’π-at-1-1-1-is.jpg)
Q. If π = 2π₯π’ + 3π¦π£ + 4π§π€Β Β and π’ = π₯2 + π¦2 + π§2, then div(π’π) at (1, 1, 1) is
Ans: 45
Solution:
![](https://www.gkseries.com/blog/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/Screenshot-563.png)
Q. If π = 2π₯π’ + 3π¦π£ + 4π§π€Β Β and π’ = π₯2 + π¦2 + π§2, then div(π’π) at (1, 1, 1) is
Ans: 45
Solution:
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