3. Mary Parker Follett believed in the idea that power is a source of :
(1) Conflict
(2) Ability to make things happen
(3) Exploitation
(4) Domination
Answer: Option (2)
4. The discovery and application of Universal and Scientific administrative principles that can improve any organisation’s efficiency and effectiveness, is called :
(1) Scientific Management Theory
(2) Bureaucratic Theory
(3) Administrative Management Theory
(4) Human Relations Theory
Answer: Option (3)
5. The essay entitled ‘The Science of Public Administration : Three Problems’ was authored by :
(1) Herbert A. Simon
(2) Dwight Waldo
(3) F. C. Mosher
(4) Robert Dahl
Answer: Option (4)
6. Which of the following is not included in the driving needs of the self-actualizers by Abraham Maslow ?
(1) Perfection
(2) Uniqueness
(3) Dependency
(4) Goodness
Answer: Option (3)
7. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer: Option (2)
8. Who among the following treated administrative system as ‘Steady State’ system ?
(1) Woodrow Wilson
(2) Max Weber
(3) Peter Drucker
(4) Karl Marx
Answer: Option (2)
9. Which of the following statements is correct about the human relations movement ?
(1) Building theory based on having better relationship with each other
(2) The workers are irrational in their approach
(3) Taylor’s followers thought his ideas are better than Elton Mayo
(4) Workers’ productivity is not the result of working conditions but the result of emotional response of the workers to the work performed
Answer: Option (4)
10. Which one of the following is not a merit of Centralization ?
(1) Facilitates Personal Leadership
(2) Improves Efficiency
(3) Effective Communication
(4) Uniformity in Action
Answer: Option (3)
11. Which one of following has major impact on Herbert Simon, when he was writing ‘Administrative Behaviour’ ?
(1) M. P. Follett
(2) Elton Mayo
(3) Gulick and Urwick
(4) Chester I. Barnard
Answer: Option (4)
12. Which of the following, according to Warren Benis, distinguishes a manager from a leader ?
(a) The manager accepts the status quo while the leader challenges it.
(b) The manager follows the rule and regulation while the leader formulates rules and regulation.
(c) The questions of manager are how and when while these are what and why in case of leader.
(d) The focus of the manager is the system and structure of organization, while the focus of leader is people.
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (1)
13. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the features of delegation ? Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) It is irrevocable
(b) It relates to authority
(c) It can be general or specific
(d) It relates to the position
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (2)
14. According to Karl Marx, which of the following is not the correct source of historical origin of bureaucracy ?
(1) Religion
(2) Agriculture
(3) Commerce
(4) Formation of state
Answer: Option (2)
15. Which of the following statements about the merits of comparative public administration is not correct ?
(1) It has expanded the scope of the research in social sciences
(2) It has helped generalization and the process of theory building
(3) It has helped analysis of different administrative systems of the world
(4) It has constrained the philosophical horizon of the students and administrators
Answer: Option (4)
16. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding the characteristics of Sala Model as enunciated by Riggs ?
(1) Incidence of unofficial influences in decision making
(2) Absence of agreement about values
(3) Incidence of normlessness
(4) Absence of polynormativity
Answer: Option (4)
17. Which one of the following U.S. Agencies manages the civil services of Federal Government ?
(1) United States Civil Service Commission
(2) Federal Labour Relations Authority (FRLA)
(3) Office of Personnel Management (OPM)
(4) Office of the President
Answer: Option (3)
18. Consider the following statements about British Prime Minister and select the correct answer by using code given below :
(a) There is no constitutional definition of the British Prime Minister.
(b) The powers of British Prime Minister are matter of conventions and usage.
(c) The Prime Minister by tradition is First Lord of Treasury.
(d) He is usually the Minister for the Civil Services.
Code :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (3)
19. Which one of following statements is not correct about the Civil Service Code of United Kingdom ?
(1) It forms part of the terms and conditions of civil servants.
(2) The Civil Service Commission hears complaints under the code from civil servants.
(3) The code covers honesty, integrity, impartiality and objectivity.
(4) It covers disagreements about the merits of policy and management decisions.
Answer: Option (4)
20. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer: Option (2)
21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :
Code :
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer: Option (4)
22. Assertion (A) : A cross-culture and cross-temporal approach made Weber’s administrative analysis substantially ecological in character.
Reason (R) : Weber studied the socio-cultural and economic conditions which stimulated the growth of bureaucracy, particularly in the West.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: Option (1)
23. According to F.W. Riggs, which one of the following is not a feature of Prismatic Society ?
(1) Selectivism
(2) Particularism
(3) Attainment
(4) Poly-functionalism
Answer: Option (2)
24. Which of the followings are the features of Administrative Development ? Select the correct answer by using the code given below :
(a) It is the development of administration
(b) Use of Information Communication Techniques
(c) Transparency and openness
(d) Increasing size of bureaucratic structure
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: Option (1)
25. Which one of the following is not an administrative feature of developing countries ?
(1) Dominated by the legacies of the past
(2) Resistance towards change
(3) Dominance of centralising tendencies
(4) Dominance of specialists in administration
Answer: Option (4)
26. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development commenced lending for India in the year :
(1) 1947
(2) 1948
(3) 1949
(4) 1950
Answer: Option (3)
27. Which of the following statements is/are not true of the highest decision making body of WTO ? Select the correct answer from code given below :
(a) The highest decision making body of WTO is the Ministerial Conference.
(b) It usually meets every six months.
(c) It brings together the all members of WTO.
(d) It can take all decisions on matters under any of the multilateral trade agreements
Code :
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (d)
Answer: Option (2)
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer with the code given below :
Code :
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Answer: Option (1)
29. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board in India ?
(1) Principal Secretary to PMO
(2) Home Secretary
(3) Chairman of UPSC
(4) Cabinet Secretary
Answer: Option (4)
30. Cabinet Secretariat is :
(1) Constitutional body
(2) Line agency
(3) Staff agency
(4) Auxiliary agency
Answer: Option (3)
31. People’s participation in governance has grown because of which of the following reasons ?
(a) Expansion of government responsibilities
(b) Economic diversification and resultant prosperity
(c) Explosion of knowledge and communication
(d) Failure of bureaucracy to meet growing demands
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: Option (3)
32. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission on “Organizational Structure of Government of India” has recommended that the number of levels through which a file passes for a decision should not exceed :
(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five
Answer: Option (3)
33. Which one of the following departments of Ministry of Finance is responsible for the preparation of budget of Government of India ?
(1) The Department of Revenue
(2) The Department of Expenditure
(3) The Department of Economic Affairs
(4) The Department of Financial Services
Answer: Option (3)
34. Ajay Tyagi Committee set up under Department of Economic Affairs recommended for which of the following ?
(1) Digital Payment
(2) Setting up of Financial Data Management Centre (FDMC)
(3) Setting up of NITI Aayog
(4) Reconstitution of Krishna River Management Board (KRMB)
Answer: Option (2)
35. Which of the following is a subject included in the concurrent List of Schedule 7 of the Constitution ?
(1) Railways
(2) Post and Telegraphs
(3) Betting and Gambling
(4) Population Control
Answer: Option (4)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using code given below :
Code :
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: Option (4)
37. Training framework of the Probationers of Indian Foreign Services as per the framework of the Ministry of External Affairs should not exceed a total period of :
(1) 12 months
(2) 13 months
(3) 14 months
(4) 15 months
Answer: Option (4)
38. Which one of the following district is the smallest by territorial area in India as per 2011 census ?
(1) Central Delhi
(2) Yanam
(3) Mahe
(4) Daman
Answer: Option (3)
39. Who narrated this statement, “Finance is as universally involved in administration as oxygen is in the atmosphere “ ?
(1) Lord Hewart
(2) David Lloyd George
(3) Morstein Marx
(4) Davis Keith
Answer: Option (3)
40. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?
(1) Term of ‘Lokpal’ - Coined by Laxmi Mall Singhvi
(2) Creation of ‘Lokpal’ - Recommended by 1ST ARC
(3) First Lokpal Bill introduced - In the year 1968
(4) Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 - Commenced on 18TH December 2013
Answer: Option (4)
41. The Second Commission on Centre State Relations Known as the Punchhi Commission was appointed in the year :
(1) 2007
(2) 2010
(3) 1997
(4) 1999
Answer: Option (1)
42. Citizens’ perception of the state and its functionaries is primarily based on :
(a) Role as a service provider
(b) Role in providing a responsive interface between the citizen and the public services
(c) Role in improving the quality of administration
(d) Role as law enforcer and regulator
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
43. Which of the following is not a department of the Ministry of Home Affairs ?
(1) Department of Boarder Management
(2) Department of Official Language
(3) Department of Social Defence
(4) Department of Jammu and Kashmir Affairs
Answer: Option (3)
44. Who among the following is not part of the collegium recommended by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission to recommend a panal of names to the Chief Minister/ Cabinet for the post of Chief Secretary ?
(1) A Minister nominated by the Chief Minister
(2) The incumbent Chief Secretary
(3) The leader of the opposition in the State Legislative Assembly
(4) Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
Answer: Option (4)
45. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the members of Union Public Service Commission. Select the correct answer by using code given below :
(a) The members can be removed by the President on the ground of misbehaviour.
(b) The matter of misbehaviour of the members can be enquired by the Supreme Court or the High Court.
(c) The term misbehaviour concerning the members is still undefined.
(d) The members can be removed even without the reference of the Court by the President on ground of infirmity of mind or body.
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
46. Who defined research as “manipulation of things, concepts or symbols for the purpose of generalizing, to extend, correct or verify knowledge, whether that knowledge aids in construction of theory or practice of an art” ?
(1) Einstein
(2) Einstein and Infled
(3) D. Slesinger
(4) D. Slesinger and M. Stephenson
Answer: Option (4)
47. Folk Wisdom prevalent in a culture :
(1) May serve as a source of hypotheses
(2) Reflects the value orientation of a culture
(3) Denotes that value orientation of a culture is source of hypotheses
(4) Does not relate to hypotheses in any manner
Answer: Option (3)
48. Pre-testing in research methodology means :
(1) Testing of hypothesis
(2) Testing the data collection instruments
(3) Ensuring efficiency in data collection process
(4) Maintaining standards in data analysic process
Answer: Option (2)
49. Which one of the following is not correct regarding the process of editing of data ?
(1) It is a process of scruitinising the data.
(2) It is undertaken to improve the quality of data for coding.
(3) Editing helps to avoid coding problems.
(4) The coding is essential for tabulation of data.
Answer: Option (4)
50. Who initiated the process of introducing social planning in India ?
(1) J. L. Nehru
(2) M. Visvesvarayya
(3) Sardar Patel
(4) Mahatama Gandhi
Answer: Option (2)
51. Which of the following matters is not within the jurisdiction of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment ?
(1) Affairs of persons with disability
(2) Affairs of Senior Citizens
(3) Affairs of Scheduled Tribes
(4) Affairs of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes
Answer: Option (3)
52. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Civil Society ?
(1) It is non-state actor/institution
(2) It enjoys autonomy and authority of state
(3) It persuades the interest of common man
(4) It facilitates citizens participation in governance
Answer: Option (2)
53. Which one of the following is a provision of ‘Right of children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Bill 2017 ?
(1) Free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 15 years
(2) Specification of minimum norms in secondary schools
(3) Acquisition of minimum required degree by unqualified teachers of schools
(4) Inclusion of a new Article 22A to the Constitution of India
Answer: Option (3)
54. Which one of the following is not a Maharatna Company ?
(1) Steel Authority of India Ltd. (SAIL)
(2) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
(3) Coal India Limited (CIL)
(4) National Aluminium Company (NALCO)
Answer: Option (4)
55. Consider the Problems and drawbacks of Public Enterprises in India and select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Political interference by the incumbent Government
(b) Low level of their operational efficiency
(c) Problem of Autonomy V/s Accountability
(d) Lack of innovative initiatives and research
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (c), (d)
Answer: Option (1)
56. ‘Start up India’ Programme was Launched on ?
(1) 15TH August 2015
(2) 15TH August 2016
(3) 16TH January 2016
(4) 26TH January 2016
Answer: Option (3)
57. Which of the following is not an advantage of Goods and Services Tax ?
(1) Unification and streamlining of manufacturing and sales
(2) Eradication of having multiple warehouses to avoid tax
(3) Shifting of the focus towards increasing the quality of services
(4) Significant step in the field of direct tax reform
Answer: Option (4)
58. The System of Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) in Public sector was recommended by which of the following ?
(1) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(2) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(3) N. Vithal Committee
(4) Arjun Sen Gupta Committee
Answer: Option (4)
59. Which of the following are the features of mixed economy in India ? Select the correct answer from code given below :
(a) Private owenership of means of production
(b) Important role of market mechanism
(c) Presence of a Large Public sectors along with free enterprises
(d) Economic planning
Code :
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (4)
60. Performance of Public enterprises can be assessed on which of the following criteria ?
(a) Profitability
(b) Productivity
(c) Adherence to time schedule and cost effectiveness
(d) Satisfaction of the people at large
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (a) and (c)
Answer: Option (1)
61. Consider the following objectives of National Rurban Mission and select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) To stimulate economic development
(b) To improve basic services
(c) To create well planned Rurban clusters
(d) To create a cluster based development with a rural soul and urban amenities
Code :
(1) (c) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (3)
62. Which of the following Commission recommended for establishment of National Institute of Public Administration ?
(1) M.M. Punchhi Commission
(2) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(3) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(4) National Law Commission
Answer: Option (3)
63. 14TH Finance Commission recommended Basic and Performance grant in the ratio of 80:20 percent to which of the following ?
(1) Panchayats
(2) Municipalities
(3) States
(4) Sick Public Sector Units
Answer: Option (2)
64. The formation of ‘District Council’ was recommended by 2ND ARC in which of its following Reports ?
(1) 11TH
(2) 12TH
(3) 13TH
(4) 15TH
Answer: Option (4)
65. Which of the following statements are true of National Capital Region (NCR) ? Answer by using code given below :
(a) NCR is an urban region only
(b) NCR is a rural-urban region
(c) A total of 22 districts of three states (Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan) are included in NCR
(d) National Capital Territory is also a part of NCR
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
Answer: Option (1)
66. Which one of following statements is not correct about Lasswell’s vision of policy sciences ?
(1) It is multidisciplinary
(2) It is descriptive
(3) It is contextual
(4) It is problem-oriented
Answer: Option (2)
67. Who made the statement that ‘Public Policy is not a decision ; it is a course or pattern of activity’ ?
(1) Thomas R. Dye
(2) Richard Bose
(3) Robert E. Stone
(4) Robert Lineberry
Answer: Option (4)
68. The ‘policy science’ as a social science discipline and practice emerged with the publication of Harold Lasswell’s essay in 1951. Which one of the following is correct title of that essay ?
(1) The Policy Orientation
(2) The Policy Sciences
(3) The Policy Approaches
(4) The Policy and Democracy
Answer: Option (1)
69. Live Stock Plays a vital role in Rural Development. Which of the following statements in this regard is not correct ?
(1) It helps generate gainful employment.
(2) It helps the landless, the small and marginal farmers.
(3) It provides nutrition and food security to the country.
(4) It raises the social status in the caste-hierarchy.
Answer: Option (4)
70. Which of the following are the components of rural development policy ?
(a) Self-reliance
(b) Distributive justice
(c) The means of production and appropriate technology
(d) Man and his environment
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (d)
Answer: Option (1)
71. Chronologically arrange the following programmes for the amelioration of the socio-economic conditions of the rural population in India :
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Community Development Programme
(c) Twenty-point Programme
(d) Food for Work Programme
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(2) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(4) (c), (b), (a), (d)
Answer: Option (2)
72. Who among the following recognise administration as a fourth branch of government ?
(1) Woodrow Wilson
(2) L.D. White
(3) W.F. Willoughby
(4) John Pfiffner
Answer: Option (3)
73. Which one of the following is not a part of supervision ?
(1) Superintendence of the work of subordinates
(2) Direction accompanied by authority
(3) Observation of authority
(4) Delegation of authority
Answer: Option (4)
74. In which of the following years the Parliament enacted the All-India Services Act ?
(1) 1950
(2) 1952
(3) 1951
(4) 1956
Answer: Option (3)
75. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
